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  1. Thinking about it, I wonder if the archbishop was referring only to select New Testament statements about marriage? Even if so, however, for him to claim “one man & one woman” has always been the state of marriage is his betraying either an appalling lack of historical knowledge — or is a deliberate misinformation.

  2. Other of the statements made by the Archbishop seem in direct contradiction to history and the Bible. I don’t understand what motivates people who should know better to make statements like this.

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